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Figure it out fridays 



A 52-year-old woman presented to the hospital with lower abdominal pain and vomiting that started 6 hours prior to presentation. Her past medical history was significant for bowel obstruction following cesarean section. She denied having any fever or chills. There was no rebound tenderness or abdominal guarding.

Laboratory test results showed an elevated white blood cell count (11,000/mm3).

CT is showing the above findings. 

What is the most likely diagnosis?


A. Adhesive small bowel obstruction 

B. Intussusception 

C. Internal hernia through the broad ligament

D. Sigmoid volvulus

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